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Pass Guaranteed Useful SAP - C_C4H620_34 - SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Customer Data Cloud Exam Guide Materials - Sugakumaster

C_C4H620_34

Exam Code: C_C4H620_34

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Customer Data CloudCertification

Version: V16.75

Q & A: 400 Questions and Answers

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NEW QUESTION: 1
A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the webserver. Which event category is described?
A. installation
B. action on objectives
C. exploitation
D. reconnaissance
Answer: A

NEW QUESTION: 2
How do you convert a solution to a template in Production?
A. Use IBM Case Manager Administration Client Import Solution Template function.
B. Use IBM Filenet Enterprise Manager to copy the object to the Target object store.
C. Converting a solution to a template applies only in the development environment.
D. Set the Business Space configuration setting com.ibm.mashups.Solutions to include your template name.
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 3
The VaR of a portfolio at the 99% confidence level is $250,000 when mean return is assumed to be zero. If the assumption of zero returns is changed to an assumption of returns of $10,000, what is the revised VaR?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The exact formula for VaR is = -(Z + ), where Z is the z-multiple for the desired confidence level, and is the mean return. Now Z is always a negative number, or at least will certainly be provided the desired confidence level is greater than 50%, and is often assumed to be zero because generally for the short time periods for which market risk VaR is calculated, its value is very close to zero.
Therefore in practice the formula for VaR just becomes -Z, and since Z is always negative, we normally just multiply the Z factor without the negative sign with the standard deviation to get the VaR.
For this question, there are two ways to get the answer. If we use the formula, we know that -Z= 250,000 (as
=0), and therefore -Z - = 250,000 - 10,000 = $240,000.
The other, easier way to think about this is that if the mean changes, then the distribution's shape stays exactly the same, and the entire distribution shifts to the right by $10,000 as the mean moves up by $10,000. Therefore the VaR cutoff, which was previously at -250,000 on the graph also moves up by 10k to -240,000, and therefore $240,000 is the correct answer.
The other choices are intended to confuse by multiplying the z-factor for the 99% confidence level with
10,000 etc.

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