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C_THR86_2405 Valid Test Dumps - New C_THR86_2405 Test Objectives, C_THR86_2405 Study Test - Sugakumaster
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Exam Code: C_THR86_2405
Exam Name: SAP Certified Associate - Implementation Consultant - SAP SuccessFactors CompensationCertification
Version: V16.75
Q & A: 400 Questions and Answers
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NEW QUESTION: 1
A company's application stores documents within on Amazon S3 bucket .The application is running on Amazon EC2 m a VPC. A recent change m security requirements states that traffic between the company's application and the S3 bucket must never leave the Amazon network.
What AWS feature can provide this functionality?
A. NAT gateways
B. Gateway VPC endpoints
C. Security groups
D. Virtual private gateway
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION: 2
Which statement about the RPF interface in a BIDIR-PIM network is true?
A. There is no RPF interface concept in BIDIR-PIM networks.
B. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the source.
C. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface is always the interface that is used to reach the PIM rendezvous point.
D. In a BIDIR-PIM network, the RPF interface can be the interface that is used to reach the PIM rendezvous point or the interface that is used to reach the source.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION: 3
Under the KMV Moody's approach to credit risk measurement, which of the following expressions describes the expected 'default point' value of assets at which the firm may be expected to default?
A. Short term debt + Long term debt
B. 2* Short term debt + Long term debt
C. Short term debt + 0.5* Long term debt
D. Long term debt + 0.5* Short term debt
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A situation where a firm has more liabilities than assets does not necessarily imply default, so long as the firm is able to pay its obligations when they come due. Therefore, short term debts have a greater bearing on a firm's default than longer term debt. However, this is not to say that merely having enough to pay off the short term debts (ie debts due within one year) is enough to avoid default. Over time, the long term debt will also be turning to short term debt, and it may not be possible for the firm to roll over its liabilities without lenders considering the long term debt. The KMV approach considers the entire short term debt and half of the long term debt as the critical value of assets below which default will be triggered. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
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